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Opioids, general and local anaesthetics

23 NEET-PG practice questions on Opioids, general and local anaesthetics, part of Pharmacology. The first 23 are below; the first 5 with answers and explanations (tap Show answer after you have chosen), the rest in Learn with a free account.

  1. Question 1 · Hard

    A 60-kg man in casualty needs a long scalp laceration sutured. The casualty medical officer uses 2% lignocaine with adrenaline and takes its maximum safe dose as 7 mg/kg. What is the largest volume of this solution he may inject?

    1. A21 mL
    2. B13.5 mL
    3. C2.1 mL
    4. D42 mL
    Show answer

    Answer: A · 21 mL

    The maximum dose is 7 mg/kg x 60 kg = 420 mg. A 2% solution contains 2 g per 100 mL, that is 20 mg/mL, so 420 mg is in 420 / 20 = 21 mL. Adrenaline slows absorption from the site, which allows a higher dose than plain lignocaine and prolongs the block. Larger wounds need a more dilute solution or a regional block to stay within the limit.

    • B: 13.5 mL uses the plain lignocaine limit of 4.5 mg/kg, not the limit with adrenaline.
    • C: 2.1 mL treats 2% as 200 mg/mL, a tenfold unit error.
    • D: 42 mL treats 2% as 10 mg/mL, double-counting the volume.
  2. Question 2 · Medium

    A 40-year-old man on methadone maintenance took several extra doses. He is brought in drowsy with a respiratory rate of 6/min. IV naloxone wakes him within 2 minutes and he asks to go home. Ninety minutes later he is again drowsy with a respiratory rate of 7/min. What explains this?

    1. ANaloxone has caused acute opioid withdrawal
    2. BMethadone has formed a more toxic metabolite
    3. CNaloxone acts for a shorter time than methadone
    4. DNaloxone is only a partial agonist at mu receptors
    Show answer

    Answer: C · Naloxone acts for a shorter time than methadone

    Naloxone's effect lasts about 30-90 minutes, but methadone has a long and variable half-life of a day or more. Once naloxone wears off, the methadone still in his body again depresses breathing (re-narcotisation). Patients who took long-acting opioids need prolonged observation, with repeated naloxone doses or an infusion titrated to breathing. He should not be allowed to leave just because he woke up.

    • A: Withdrawal causes agitation and arousal, not recurrent sedation.
    • B: Methadone's effect is from the parent drug, not a toxic metabolite.
    • D: Naloxone is a pure antagonist, not a partial agonist.
  3. Question 3 · Easy

    An 8-year-old boy is having squint surgery under general anaesthesia induced with sevoflurane, with suxamethonium for intubation. Soon after, his jaw is rigid, end-tidal CO2 climbs from 35 to 75 mmHg despite increased ventilation, pulse is 160/min and temperature is rising quickly. Which drug is specific for this condition?

    1. ADantrolene
    2. BCyproheptadine
    3. CNeostigmine
    4. DBromocriptine
    Show answer

    Answer: A · Dantrolene

    Masseter rigidity, a rapid rise in end-tidal CO2, tachycardia and rising temperature after a volatile agent and suxamethonium are malignant hyperthermia. In susceptible people, usually with an RYR1 mutation, these triggers cause uncontrolled calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and a hypermetabolic state. The volatile agent is stopped, the patient hyperventilated with 100% oxygen and dantrolene given IV; dantrolene blocks calcium release through the ryanodine receptor. Potassium, CK and myoglobinuria are monitored, and the family is referred for susceptibility testing.

    • B: Cyproheptadine is used for serotonin syndrome.
    • C: Neostigmine reverses non-depolarising block and does nothing for the hypermetabolic state.
    • D: Bromocriptine is used for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, not malignant hyperthermia.
  4. Question 4 · Medium

    A 70-year-old man with prostate cancer, bone metastases and CKD stage 5 not on dialysis has taken regular oral morphine for pain. Over a week he has become drowsy, with myoclonic jerks, pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 10/min. Liver tests are normal. What explains his toxicity?

    1. AHigher free morphine from low serum albumin
    2. BAccumulation of active glucuronide metabolites
    3. CTolerance developing to its analgesic effect
    4. DReduced hepatic glucuronidation of morphine
    Show answer

    Answer: B · Accumulation of active glucuronide metabolites

    Morphine is conjugated in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide, which is a more potent opioid, and morphine-3-glucuronide, which is neuroexcitatory. Both are excreted by the kidneys and build up in renal failure, causing sedation, respiratory depression and myoclonus. In severe CKD, fentanyl or buprenorphine, which have no active renally cleared metabolites, are preferred, or doses are reduced and spaced out. Naloxone in small titrated doses reverses dangerous respiratory depression without losing all analgesia.

    • A: Morphine is only weakly protein-bound, so low albumin matters little.
    • C: Tolerance would reduce, not increase, the opioid effects.
    • D: Hepatic conjugation is preserved; his liver tests are normal.
  5. Question 5 · Medium

    A 24-year-old man needs an elective inguinal hernia repair. His elder brother died of high fever and rigidity during general anaesthesia, and his father had a positive caffeine-halothane contracture test. The anaesthetist plans: 1. Give oral dantrolene for 3 days before surgery as routine. 2. Avoid all volatile anaesthetics and suxamethonium. 3. Total intravenous anaesthesia with propofol, an opioid and a non-depolarising relaxant is suitable. 4. Keep dantrolene available in theatre. Which parts of the plan are correct?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B1, 2, 3 and 4
    3. C2, 3 and 4 only
    4. D2 and 4 only
    Show answer

    Answer: C · 2, 3 and 4 only

    Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct for a patient presumed susceptible to malignant hyperthermia. Volatile agents and suxamethonium are the triggers, so the vaporisers are removed and the machine flushed or fitted with charcoal filters, and anaesthesia is given with non-triggering drugs such as propofol, opioids and non-depolarising relaxants (or a regional technique). Dantrolene must be immediately available in theatre. Routine oral dantrolene pretreatment is not recommended, because it does not reliably prevent a crisis and causes weakness.

    • A: Includes routine dantrolene pretreatment and omits keeping dantrolene ready.
    • B: Includes routine oral dantrolene pretreatment, which is not recommended.
    • D: Omits propofol-based anaesthesia, the suitable non-triggering technique.
  6. Question 6 · Hard

    A 65-year-old woman with normal kidney and liver function has a hip fracture fixed under spinal anaesthesia with intrathecal bupivacaine and morphine. She is comfortable and alert in recovery. Ten hours later on the ward she is drowsy, with pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 7/min; she has received no other opioid. Which property of morphine explains this delayed effect?

    1. AHigh lipid solubility, so it enters the brain rapidly
    2. BLow lipid solubility, so it spreads up in the CSF
    3. CSlow absorption from the spinal fat into the blood
    4. DBuild-up of its active metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  7. Question 7 · Medium

    A 55-kg woman is having a supraclavicular brachial plexus block with 25 mL of 0.5% bupivacaine. Near the end of injection she reports ringing in the ears, a metallic taste and numbness around the mouth, then has a seizure followed by broad-complex ventricular tachycardia. The airway is secured, the seizure is controlled with midazolam and CPR is started. Which specific treatment should be given?

    1. AIntravenous sodium bicarbonate
    2. BIntravenous 20% lipid emulsion
    3. CIntravenous lignocaine for the VT
    4. DIntravenous dantrolene

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  8. Question 8 · Medium

    A 4-year-old girl has a cream containing lignocaine and prilocaine applied thickly under an occlusive dressing over a large area before laser treatment of a birthmark. Two hours later she looks grey-blue. SpO2 is 85% on 100% oxygen while arterial PO2 is 260 mmHg, and the blood is chocolate-brown. Which is the treatment?

    1. ASodium nitrite
    2. BHyperbaric oxygen
    3. CIntravenous lipid emulsion
    4. DMethylene blue

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  9. Question 9 · Easy

    A 45-year-old woman on the surgical ward has received several extra IV morphine doses for pain on the night after a laparotomy. At 2 am the nurse finds her hard to rouse, with a respiratory rate of 6/min, SpO2 84% and pinpoint pupils. Oxygen and airway support are started. Which drug should be given?

    1. AAtropine
    2. BNaloxone
    3. CFlumazenil
    4. DPhysostigmine

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  10. Question 10 · Medium

    A 28-year-old man dependent on heroin is admitted to a de-addiction centre in Punjab. He last used heroin 3 hours ago. Thirty minutes after his first sublingual dose of buprenorphine he develops yawning, watering eyes, runny nose, gooseflesh, abdominal cramps and dilated pupils. What explains this?

    1. AThe naloxone in the tablet was absorbed
    2. BBuprenorphine is a pure mu receptor antagonist
    3. CThe sublingual dose was too low to act
    4. DBuprenorphine displaces heroin as a partial agonist

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  11. Question 11 · Medium

    A 30-year-old man is brought to casualty after a road traffic accident with a ruptured spleen. BP is 80/50 mmHg and pulse 130/min despite rapid fluid infusion. He needs rapid sequence induction for an emergency laparotomy. Which induction agent best preserves his blood pressure?

    1. AKetamine
    2. BPropofol
    3. CMidazolam
    4. DThiopentone sodium

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  12. Question 12 · Medium

    Jaundice with ALT 1,800 U/L, fever and eosinophilia appears 6 days after a woman's second halothane anaesthetic within 3 weeks, given at a small hospital for a repeat dilatation and curettage. Viral markers are negative. What is the mechanism of her liver injury?

    1. AHepatitis from a contaminated transfusion
    2. BBlockade of the bile salt export pump
    3. CDirect hepatocyte necrosis from hypoxia
    4. DImmune reaction to trifluoroacetylated liver proteins

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  13. Question 13 · Medium

    On the second night after tonsillectomy for obstructive sleep apnoea, a child given codeine syrup at the prescribed dose at home is brought unresponsive, with pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6/min. Naloxone reverses the signs. Which factor best explains this reaction to a normal dose?

    1. ACodeine accumulating in renal failure
    2. BUltra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism to morphine
    3. CDeficient CYP2D6 activity
    4. DPlasma cholinesterase deficiency

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  14. Question 14 · Medium

    Consider these statements on inhaled anaesthetics: 1. Sevoflurane is preferred for inhalational induction in children because it is not pungent. 2. Desflurane is unsuitable for induction because it irritates the airway. 3. Isoflurane is the agent most likely to sensitise the heart to adrenaline. 4. Nitrous oxide is safe in a pneumothorax because it is poorly soluble. Which statements are correct?

    1. A1, 2 and 3 only
    2. B1, 2 and 4 only
    3. C2, 3 and 4 only
    4. D1 and 2 only

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  15. Question 15 · Medium

    Lidocaine infiltration around a large, tense, pus-filled abscess on a labourer's thigh, red and hot for 5 days, gives poor anaesthesia in a minor operation theatre during incision and drainage, though the same dose worked well for a clean laceration earlier. What is the main reason?

    1. APus enzymes hydrolyse lidocaine
    2. BMore drug stays ionised in acidic tissue
    3. CLidocaine is bound by proteins in the pus
    4. DInflamed nerves lack sodium channels

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  16. Question 16 · Medium

    During a dental extraction last year, a man developed urticaria and wheeze after a procaine injection; allergy testing confirmed hypersensitivity. He needs another extraction today. Which local anaesthetic is safest?

    1. AChloroprocaine
    2. BBenzocaine
    3. CTetracaine
    4. DLidocaine

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  17. Question 17 · Easy

    Which local anaesthetic is the most cardiotoxic after accidental intravascular injection?

    1. ARopivacaine
    2. BLidocaine
    3. CPrilocaine
    4. DBupivacaine

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  18. Question 18 · Easy

    At the end of a nitrous oxide and oxygen anaesthetic, the anaesthetist gives 100% oxygen for several minutes after turning off the nitrous oxide. What is this meant to prevent?

    1. APostoperative nausea
    2. BDiffusion hypoxia
    3. CLaryngospasm
    4. DMalignant hyperthermia

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  19. Question 19 · Hard

    A woman with known acute intermittent porphyria needs an emergency appendicectomy at night. Her last attack, with abdominal pain, hyponatraemia and weakness, followed a short course of an anticonvulsant 2 years ago. Urine porphobilinogen is normal today. The anaesthetist plans a rapid sequence induction and wants to avoid drugs that induce hepatic ALA synthase. Which induction agent is the safest choice?

    1. AThiopentone
    2. BMethohexitone
    3. CEtomidate
    4. DPropofol

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  20. Question 20 · Medium

    Etomidate was used for rapid sequence intubation of a man in septic shock in the medical ICU. Over the next day he needs rising doses of noradrenaline, and a random cortisol is low despite his severe illness. He received no steroids before admission, and blood cultures grow E. coli. Which action of the drug explains this?

    1. ASuppression of pituitary ACTH
    2. BInhibition of 21-hydroxylase
    3. CInhibition of 11-beta-hydroxylase
    4. DHaemorrhage into the adrenals

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  21. Question 21 · Hard

    On the neurology ward, a dental student has 2 months of numb feet, tingling hands and an unsteady gait that is worse in the dark. He is otherwise healthy and vegetarian. Romberg sign is positive, vibration sense is lost to the knees, ankle jerks are absent and both plantars are extensor. He admits to inhaling nitrous oxide from cream-charger canisters at parties several times a week. Serum B12 is 240 pg/mL (reference 200-900), and homocysteine and methylmalonic acid are raised. MRI shows an inverted-V signal in the posterior cervical cord. How does the drug cause this?

    1. AIt causes hypoxic injury to the spinal cord
    2. BIt inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
    3. CIt oxidises cobalamin and inactivates methionine synthase
    4. DIt blocks intestinal absorption of vitamin B12

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  22. Question 22 · Medium

    In a palliative care clinic, a man with metastatic prostate cancer has taken oral morphine 60 mg a day for 3 months. The drowsiness and nausea of the first week have gone, but he still passes hard stools only every 4 days. What is the best plan for his bowels?

    1. ABulk-forming fibre alone
    2. BWait for tolerance to develop
    3. CRegular stimulant laxative with a softener
    4. DSwitch morphine to tramadol

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

  23. Question 23 · Easy

    During a supraclavicular brachial plexus block with bupivacaine, a patient complains of perioral numbness and a metallic taste, then has a seizure followed by ventricular tachycardia. Besides airway care and advanced life support, which specific treatment should be given?

    1. AIntravenous naloxone
    2. BIntravenous flumazenil
    3. CIntravenous dantrolene
    4. DIntravenous 20% lipid emulsion

    Answer and explanation in LearnFree account

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